Both can be bad and still have one be worse. These are not mutually exclusive at all.
If we all agree that billionaires influencing the election is bad already, the next point of discussion is what differentiates the two. They are not identical, they’re just extremely similar.
If we all agree that billionaires influencing the election is bad already, the next point of discussion is what differentiates the two.
If we all agree that billionaires influencing the election is bad already, then why does it matter where they come from? Why does that differentiation need to be made at all? They’ve already crossed the line into unacceptable territory, so why split hairs? The only reason it would matter is we don’t agree that billionaires buying elections is bad, just certain ones.
Both can be bad and still have one be worse. These are not mutually exclusive at all.
If we all agree that billionaires influencing the election is bad already, the next point of discussion is what differentiates the two. They are not identical, they’re just extremely similar.
If we all agree that billionaires influencing the election is bad already, then why does it matter where they come from? Why does that differentiation need to be made at all? They’ve already crossed the line into unacceptable territory, so why split hairs? The only reason it would matter is we don’t agree that billionaires buying elections is bad, just certain ones.